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| Author | Topic: Dicing With Probability |
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Charles Pegge Member |
A dice is thrown 5 times. What are the probabilities of: A: getting 3 ONEs in a row hint: Pascal's pyramid. ------------------ IP: Logged |
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Mel Bishop Member |
Disregard my original answer. I misread and misunderstood the question. But.. Added: it's the same thing as that old coin question: If you ------------------ [This message has been edited by Mel Bishop (edited January 19, 2007).] IP: Logged |
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Charles Pegge Member |
These are not trick questions, but you have to consider the permutations very carefully. The insight gained is well worth the effort. ------------------ IP: Logged |
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Michael Mattias Member |
Please do your own homework. IP: Logged |
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Charles Pegge Member |
But I've gambled away my calculator. ------------------ IP: Logged |
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Charles Pegge Member |
Some more clues: A binomial probability distribution for 5 trials: A=1/6 B=1-A (A+B)^5=1 Using Pascals Triangle (A+B)^5 expands to: 1*(A^5) + 5*(A^4*B) + 10*(A^3*B^2) + 10*(A^2+B^3) + 5*(A*B^4) + 1*(B^5) questions B to E involve the third term: 10 * ( A^3 * B^2 ) ------------------ IP: Logged |
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Brad D Byrne Member |
">>>>If you flip a coin 10 times and, by some happenstance, it come up "heads" all 10 times, what are the odds it will come up heads the 11th time. Answer: 50/50...." well there are many who say this, how-ever experimentation shows (proves?) different ------------------ IP: Logged |
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David Roberts Member |
quote: Where, Brad? If the coin is unbiased then Mel is correct. The probability of 11 consecutive heads is 0.5^11. However, the probability of a head is 0.5 irrespective of its history. Coins don't have memories. [This message has been edited by David Roberts (edited January 20, 2007).] IP: Logged |
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Charles Pegge Member |
Using a binomial you can answer questions like: What is the probability of getting 4 heads in 11 flips of the coin ? (H+T)^11 where H is 0.5 for heads and T=0.5 for tails. in this case the 4th binomial term which we want is 165 * ( 0.5^4 + 0.5^7 ) Pascal's Triangle: ------------------ IP: Logged |
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Brad D Byrne Member |
Hi David, yes I understand that each toss has 50/50 probabillity, many argue this, but experimentation shows different B. ------------------ IP: Logged |
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David Roberts Member |
quote: We don't need practice to show that. If we consider 100 tosses then it is a simple matter to calculate the probability of getting only one head, two heads, three heads up to 100 heads. If we then plot the probabilities we get a bell curve without putting our hands in our pockets for a coin.
quote: Not if the coin is unbiased. In maths if an assumption leads to a contradiction then the assumption is shown to be wrong. In Statistics we don't have contradictions we have doubt. A sufficiently long one-sided streak will cast doubt upon the assumption that a coin is unbiased. The value of sufficient depends upon the statistic being considered. A manufacturing process may be allowed to run longer before intervention than a process where life and death is involved. quote: It shouldn't. If experimentation shows a significant difference to a statistical expectation then the maths involved in the statistical expectation is wrong. IP: Logged |
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Brad D Byrne Member |
ok, David ask this, if we flip 100 times and we get 80% heads, then we flip 1000 times, it's likelier that we get closer to 50%, no? then if we flip 10,000 times, it's very likely we are near 50%, correct? well if so, then the correct math MUST show (somehow?) no? added; I spent quite a while trying to convince myself that my results were coincedental, but honestly ------------------ [This message has been edited by Brad D Byrne (edited January 20, 2007).] IP: Logged |
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James Graham-Eagle Member |
Brad, If you get 80 heads on the first 100 tosses then you have 60 more ------------------ IP: Logged |
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Brad D Byrne Member |
Hi James, yes I understand the dilution, how-ever you must admit that at some point the 60 diviation will diminish, no? and extremely likely that it will happen in less than 1000 games (really closer to 500 imo) ------------------ IP: Logged |
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David Roberts Member |
OK, Brad ![]() > ask this, if we flip 100 times and we get 80% heads, > (which can be likely) No, it cannot. 8 out of 10, yes but not 80 out of 100. For the sake of argument I'll agree. > then we flip 1000 times, it's likelier that we get closer to 50%, no? I agree. > then if we flip 10,000 times, it's very likely we are near 50%, correct? I agree with that also. Actually, my agreeing to the last two is why I disagreed with the first one. Your argument would have been better had you started with 8 out of 10 as that is not particulary unusual. Anyway, a small point so I'll say I agree so far. > well if so, then the correct math MUST show (somehow?) , that a one-sided deviance from norm will ultimately balance out from the opposing-sided deviance >no? I agree with that as well. However, the information is of no use to us because we cannot know when that balance will occur. If we could make any use of it in the near future then we have not got a random process. Near future accurate predictions are to be found in chaotic processes, not random processes. So, to your experience with keno. You were lucky, plain and simple. If I examined the stats I may well find that it was unusual but I very much doubt that it would be statistically significant. A long lived trend does not tell me that a shift in the opposite direction is imminent, it tells me that something is wrong with the mechanics or the mechanics are not random. IP: Logged |
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